More Second Amendment Sophistry
By
Michael P. Tremoglie
Former
Philadelphia Police Officer
Submitted by
the Second
Amendment Police Department
I
recently read an article that can only be characterized as revealing. Eric
Lichtblau’s column in the LA Times, about the Bush administration’s policies
regarding gun ownership, recites the usual DNC litany of complaints about the
Bush administration.
However,
Lichtblau then quotes a report from the Violence Policy Center. Lichtman
writes,
“Gun
control advocates said the declaration marked a drastic shift from about
60 years of legal precedent (italics mine), and the Violence Policy Center, in its report
Wednesday, charged that Ashcroft's letter was based on "misleading and
inaccurate" legal rationale--misquoting Founding Fathers and former attorneys
general.”
“The most blatant problem, the pro-gun control group said, was
Ashcroft's failure to mention the standing opinion on the issue from the U.S.
Supreme Court: a 1939 decision in United
States vs. Miller that the Constitution guarantees militias, not individuals,
the right to bear arms (once again, italics
mine).”
A
Supreme Court ruling that guarantees militias not individuals, the right to bear
arms? How could this be? If that were the case then nobody would currently own
guns--that is only common sense.
I
reviewed the citation US v. Miller US Sup CT
1939. Simply put, the case involved
a sawed-off shotgun, which was illegal within the statute of the National
Firearms Act. It did not mention all guns.
These
are excerpts from the majority opinion (all italics are mine):
“The
signification attributed to the term Militia appears from the debates in the
Convention, the history and legislation of Colonies and States, and the writings
of approved commentators. These show plainly enough that the Militia comprised
all males physically capable of acting in concert for the common defense. 'A
body of citizens enrolled for military discipline.' And further, that ordinarily
when called for service these men were expected to
appear bearing arms supplied by themselves and of the
kind in common use at the time”
“Also
'Clauses intended to insure the possession of arms and ammunition by all who
were subject to military service appear in all the important enactments
concerning military affairs.”
“In
the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a 'shotgun
having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length' at this time has some
reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated
militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep
and bear such an instrument.
Certainly it is not within judicial notice
that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use
could contribute to the common defense.”
Is
this ruling to be construed as guaranteeing the right to bear arms only to
militias not individuals? I would not think so.