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The
Below Comments Relate to this Newslink:
Should Someone Use Deadly Force to Protect Property?
Submitted by:
Mark A. Taff
Website: www.marktaff.com
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are 3 comments
on this story
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The use of guns against property violations is highly moral, since a person’s life and his property are intertwined.
Now, what we mean by property is of utmost importance. An anarcho-capitalist with a Rothbardian approach would say that property is the natural right of a person, by virtue of being a person. In other words, property rights are not a function of private property alone, but an extension of the life of the person. That is why Murray Rothbard stipulates that property rights are human rights, as an absolute principle. |
| Comment by:
xqqme
(1/29/2015)
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The acquisition of property by legal methods necessarily requires the exchange of a portion of a person's lifetime for that property. After all, how many hours must one work at even $40 per hour to acquire a late model vehicle costing forty or fifty thousand dollars, especially after the taxman cometh and taketh away a large percentage?
It is that time... that portion of a man's life that he protects when he protects his property. Time spent to acquire property can not be returned. It's as if the thief has murdered... has actually stolen that portion of his victim's life.
Of course, force should be legal to use in protecting one's property, and many of the State Constitutions include that provision the Right to Keep and Bear Arms. |
| Comment by:
teebonicus
(1/29/2015)
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| Short answer: Yes. |
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| QUOTES
TO REMEMBER |
| The right of a citizen to bear arms, in lawful defense of himself or the State, is absolute. He does not derive it from the State government. It is one of the high powers" delegated directly to the citizen, and `is excepted out of the general powers of government.' A law cannot be passed to infringe upon or impair it, because it is above the law, and independent of the lawmaking power." [Cockrum v. State, 24 Tex. 394, at 401-402 (1859)] |
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